Someone wrote this on a forum which I frequently visit. He writes much more eloquently than me, but I would like to think that our views are along same line. This is what he wrote:
Also, I want to bring up a related subject while we’re discussing matters of history. I have a real problem with westerners (or anyone else) who whitewash similar human rights abuses by the West by claiming them to be "crimes of the past". Few nations, strong or weak, are free of ethnic/racial abuses. The West cannot deny it has had its share of crimes against humanity. When non-western individuals bring up this shameful history and call out their hypocrisy, the one response we hear is that "oh those were ‘mistakes of the past’… we’re moving beyond that now…". It is so convenient for Westerners to be able to say that all the while enjoying the benefits of their ancestors’ plunder, knowing that their crimes cannot ever be reversed or that the unjust consequences of their actions cannot ever be rectified (unless you consider Indian casinos a "just" form of reparation for genocidal policies far worse than anything the CPC has ever thought of).
Bottom line, if the Westerners are allowed the convenience, so should we. We too, can do whatever is necessary to secure our interests now and let our children point the finger at us.
So I guess my message to all those Chinese posters here is that – the next time people excuses the West’s crime’s against humanity by claiming it as a "thing of the past", call them on it & ask them whether the passage of time erases injustice. If yes, then China has every right to "shoot first & repent later". If no, then the West is no more pure than the rest and their so-called "human rights organizations" have no right to lecture anyone.
So I simply want to put forth that fundamental question: "DOES THE PASSAGE OF TIME ERASE INHUMANITY AND INJUSTICE?" This is a yes or no question, and either answer carries with it certain implications (which I’ve already outlined).